Hence the canonical map $\mathop{N\! L}\nolimits _{B/A} \otimes _ B B_ g \to \mathop{N\! L}\nolimits _{B_ g/A}$ is a homotopy equivalence.
Proof.
Since $P[x]/(I, fx - 1) = B[x]/(gx - 1) = B_ g$ we get the statement about $I$ and $fx - 1$ generating $J$. Consider the commutative diagram
\[ \xymatrix{ 0 \ar[r] & \Omega _{P/A} \otimes B_ g \ar[r] & \Omega _{P[x]/A} \otimes B_ g \ar[r] & \Omega _{B[x]/B} \otimes B_ g \ar[r] & 0 \\ & (I/I^2)_ g \ar[r] \ar[u] & J/J^2 \ar[r] \ar[u] & (gx - 1)/(gx - 1)^2 \ar[r] \ar[u] & 0 } \]
with exact rows of Lemma 10.134.4. The $B_ g$-module $\Omega _{B[x]/B} \otimes B_ g$ is free of rank $1$ on $\text{d}x$. The element $\text{d}x$ in the $B_ g$-module $\Omega _{P[x]/A} \otimes B_ g$ provides a splitting for the top row. The element $gx - 1 \in (gx - 1)/(gx - 1)^2$ is mapped to $g\text{d}x$ in $\Omega _{B[x]/B} \otimes B_ g$ and hence $(gx - 1)/(gx - 1)^2$ is free of rank $1$ over $B_ g$. (This can also be seen by arguing that $gx - 1$ is a nonzerodivisor in $B[x]$ because it is a polynomial with invertible constant term and any nonzerodivisor gives a quasi-regular sequence of length $1$ by Lemma 10.69.2.)
Let us prove $(I/I^2)_ g \to J/J^2$ injective. Consider the $P$-algebra map
\[ \pi : P[x] \to (P/I^2)_ f = P_ f/I_ f^2 \]
sending $x$ to $1/f$. Since $J$ is generated by $I$ and $fx - 1$ we see that $\pi (J) \subset (I/I^2)_ f = (I/I^2)_ g$. Since this is an ideal of square zero we see that $\pi (J^2) = 0$. If $a \in I$ maps to an element of $J^2$ in $J$, then $\pi (a) = 0$, which implies that $a$ maps to zero in $I_ f/I_ f^2$. This proves the desired injectivity.
Thus we have a short exact sequence of two term complexes
\[ 0 \to \mathop{N\! L}\nolimits (\alpha ) \otimes _ B B_ g \to \mathop{N\! L}\nolimits (\beta ) \to (B_ g \xrightarrow {g} B_ g) \to 0 \]
Such a short exact sequence can always be split in the category of complexes. In our particular case we can take as splittings
\[ J/J^2 = (I/I^2)_ g \oplus B_ g (fx - 1)\quad \text{and}\quad \Omega _{P[x]/A} \otimes B_ g = \Omega _{P/A} \otimes B_ g \oplus B_ g (g^{-2}\text{d}f + \text{d}x) \]
This works because $\text{d}(fx - 1) = x\text{d}f + f \text{d}x = g(g^{-2}\text{d}f + \text{d}x)$ in $\Omega _{P[x]/A} \otimes B_ g$.
$\square$
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